CBSE Class 7 - Science - CH11 - Transportation in Animals and Plants

CBSE Class 7 - Science - CH11 - Transportation in Animals and Plants Transportation in Animals and Plants Human Heart (credits:wpclipart) NCERT Solution, Q & A Q1(NCERT): Fill in the blanks. i. The blood from the heart is transported to all parts of the body by the ___________________. ii. Haemoglobin is present in ______________ cells. iii. Arteries and veins are joined by a network of ______________. iv. The rhythmic expansion and contraction of the heart is called _________________. v. The main excretory product in human beings is _____________. vi. Sweat contains water and _______________. vii. Kidneys eliminate the waste materials in the liquid form called _______________. viii. Water reaches great heights in the trees because of suction pull caused by _____________. Answer: i. arteries ii. red blood cells (RBCs) iii. capillaries iv. heartbeat v. urea vi. salt vii. urine viii. transpiration. Q2: What do you mean by circulatory system? Answer: The organ system which consists of heart, blood vessels and blood together constitute the circulatory system. Q3(NCERT): Match structures given in Column I with functions given in Column II. Column I Column II (i) Stomata (a) Absorption of water (ii) Xylem (b) Transpiration (iii) Root hairs (c) Transport of food (iv) Phloem (d) Transport of water (e) Synthesis of carbohydrates Answer: Column I Column II (i) Stomata (b) Transpiration, (e) Synthesis of carbohydrates (ii) Xylem (d) Transport of water (iii) Root hairs (a) Absorption of water (iv) Phloem (c) Transport of food Q4: Name the scientist who discovered blood circulation. Answer: William Harvey Q5(NCERT):Choose the correct options: (a) In plants, water is transported through (i) Xylem (ii) Phloem (iii) Stomata (iv) Root hair Answer: (i) Xylem (b) Water absorption through roots can be increased by keeping the plants (i) in the shade (ii) in dim light (iii) under the fan (iv) covered with a polythene bag Answer: (iii) under the fan Explanation: The wind speed because of fan will increase the transpiration process. More water is lost by the plants thus creating a higher suction pull. Q6: What is wilting of plants? Answer: If water is lost more quickly than it is absorbed by the root hairs, it will result in loss of water in plants. The leaves, flower and stem of the plant droop. It is known as wilting. Q7(NCERT): Why is transport of materials necessary in a plant or in an animal? Explain. Answer: Transport of materials is necessary in plants and animals due to following reasons: 1. All livings beings need food, water and oxygen for survival and to perform various activities. It is necessary to transport these materials to various parts of the body. 2. Food and oxygen are transported to all cells of the body so that they can generate energy and grow. 3. Waste products generated by cells need to be transported to excretory organs. If it does not happen, the organism may die because of poisoning by these waste material. Q8: What is vascular system of plants? Answer: Higher plants have well defined transport system called vascular system. It consists of pipe-like vessels called xylem and phloem. Xylem tissues join together and form long tubes. They transport water and minerals from roots to all parts of the plant. Phloem tissues also join together and form long tube which carry food from leaves to various parts of the plant body. Q9(NCERT): What will happen if there are no platelets in the blood? Answer: Platelets help in clotting of blood whenever there is a wound on the body. If platelets are not present in the blood, clotting will not happen and bleeding will continue. The prolonged blood loss may result in death of the person. When platelets are absent and there is no blood clotting occurs, this disease is called haemophilia. Q10: Name the various transport systems present in human beings and mammals. Answer: 1. Circulatory System 2. Excretory System Q11(NCERT): What are stomata? Give two functions of stomata. Answer: Stomata are the tiny pores that present on the surface of leaves. The functions of stomata are: 1. The water evaporates through the stomata by the the process of transpiration. 2. Exchange of gases (carbon dioxide and oxygen) also take place through stomata. These gases are used in photosynthesis and respiration process in the plants. Q12(NCERT): Does transpiration serve any useful function in the plants? Explain. Answer: 1. Transpiration of water from leaves creates a suction pull, due to which water rises up high in tall trees. 2. Transpiration also cools the plant. Q13: What does blood transport in human body? or Q(NCERT): Why is blood needed by all the parts of a body? Answer: Blood is a special type of fluid that flows in blood vessels. It transports the following: 1. digested food from small intestine to other parts of the human body. 2. oxygen from lungs to heart and then to other body cells. 3. carbon dioxide from body cells to lungs via heart. 4. nitrogenous waste from body cells to kidneys for excretion from the body. Q14(NCERT): What are the components of blood? Answer: The main components of blood are: 1. red blood cells (RBC) - carry oxygen 2. white blood cells (WBC) - fight against germs. 3. Platelets - help in clotting of blood 4. Plasma - liquid part of blood, contains water. Carries digested food and other substances. Q15: Which blood cells are part of our immune system? Answer: White blood cells (WBCs) Q16(NCERT): What makes the blood look red? Answer: The presence of red pigment called haemoglobin in red blood cells makes the blood look red. Q17: Name the device used by medical practitioners to listen heart beat of the patients. Answer: Stethoscope Q18: What are the different types of blood vessels found in our circulatory system? Answer: Arteries and veins. Q19: Name the instrument used to measure blood pressure. Answer: sphygmomanometer. Q20(NCERT): Describe the function of the heart. Pumping of Heart credits:wpclipart Answer: 1. Heart is triangular shaped organ. It is made up of cardiac muscles and is located between the lungs inside chest cavity. 2. It beats 60 to 80 times per minute throughout life. It pumps blood to all parts of the body. 3. The heart has four chambers. The top chambers are called auricles (or atria) and the lower two chambers are called ventricles. 4. The left chambers are completely separated from right side by a partition called septum. The chambers contain valves which allow the flow of blood in one direction only. 5. The right auricle receives carbon-dioxide rich blood from various parts of the body. The right ventricle pumps the blood to the lungs. Inside lungs, carbon-dioxide is exchanged with oxygen. (see steps 1-6 in figure below) 6. The left auricle receives oxygen-rich blood from the lungs.The left ventricle pumps this blood to the rest of the body. (Correction:In the above diagram, ➍ is pulmonary vein carrying oxygen-rich blood) Q21: Why do arteries have thick elastic walls? Answer: Arteries carry oxygen-rich blood from the heart to all parts of the body. The blood flow is is rapid and at a high pressure, that's why arteries have thick elastic walls. Q22: Do arteries always carry oxygen-rich blood? Answer: Except pulmonary artery, all arteries carry oxygen-rich blood. Pulmonary artery carries carbon dioxide rich blood from heart to lungs. Q23: Name the only vein which carry oxygen-rich blood? Answer: It is the pulmonary vein which carry oxygen-rich blood from lungs to heart. All other veins carry carbon dioxide rich blood. Q24: What is a pulse? Answer: The throbbing movement due to blood flowing in arteries is called pulse. Q25: What do we call the study of blood? Answer: Haematology Q26: Name the largest artery in human body. Answer: Aorta Q27: Sometime doctors inject medicines directly in our bloodstream. Where do they inject in artery or in vein? Answer: In vein. Vein are superficial and are easily locatable. Second medicine needs to be transported to all parts of the body. Through veins, medicine reaches heart and then pumped to all over the body. Q28: What is heart beat? Name the instrument used to provide information about heart beats. Answer: One complete contraction and relaxation of heart makes one heart beat. Electrocardiogram (ECG) is used to check rhythm of heart beats. Q29: What is the function of blood capillaries? Answer: The network of blood capillaries form a junction between arteries and veins. At these junctions, the exchange of gases, food materials and metabolic wastes take place. (In progress...)

Class7 chapter Soil science Extraquestion answer

Class7 chapter Soil Living science question answer A. MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS: Choose the most appropriate answer. 1. Humus and the smallest particles of rock form the a. A-horizon. b. B-horizon. c. C-horizon. d. bedrock 2. Which of these has the smallest size of particles? a. sand b. silt c. clay d. gravel 3. Which type of soil is best for growing cotton? a. sandy b. clayey c. loamy d. sandy-loam 4. Which of these does not cause weathering'? a. clouds b. wind c. flowing water d. freezing of rainwater 5. Water percolating into the soil collects over a. A-horizon. b. B-horizon. c. C-horizon. d. none of these 6. Water logging can be expected in soil which is rich in a. sand. b„ clay. c. silt. d. humus. 7. Paddy grows best in a. clayey soil. b. loam. c. sandy soil. d. sandy-loam. Answer. 1. a 2. c 3. d 4. a 5. d 6. b 7. a B. VERY SHORT-ANSWER QUESTIONS: Give one-word answers. 1. Breaking down of rock into smaller pieces by natural forces is called ----. 2. Which absorbs more water—sandy soil or clay? 3. The layer of soil that contains the largest rock pieces is called ---. 4. in general, which is the best topsoil for growing plants'? 5. Water logging occurs in sandy soil. True or false? 6. Is soil a natural resource'? 7. Since clay holds more water, it is very good for plants as they get plenty of water. True or false? 8. Humus is formed by the action of insect on soil. True or false? 9. Soil without humus cannot be fertile. True or false? 10. Humus is formed bar the action of decomposers. True or false? . Answer: 1. weathering 2. sandy soil 3. bedrock 4. loam 5. false 6. yes 7. false 8. false 9. True 10. true C. SHORT-ANSWER QUESTIONS: Answer in a sentence or two. 1. What does soil consist of? Ans: Soil consists of mineral particles, humus, air, water and living organisms. 2. What is weathering? Ans: Weathering is the breaking down of huge pieces of rocks into smaller pieces by the action of natural forces, such as water, glaciers, wind, roots of plants etc. 3. Which soil will allow more water to percolate—sandy soil or clayey soil? Why? Ans: Sandy soil will allow more water to percolate. This is because water drains quickly through large spaces between the sand particles. 4. Which soil will absorb more water—sandy soil or clayey soil? Why? Ans: clayey soil will absorb more water. In clayey soil, which mostly contains clay, water drains through very slowly, since the particles are very small and tightly packed. 5. What is humus? Ans: The dead and decay remains of plants and animals present in soil is called humus 6. How does large variation between day and night temperatures cause weathering? Ans: The rocks expand during the day and contract at night. This constant expansion and contraction weakens the rocks, and they crack and crumble. 7. What do you mean by 'water table'? Ans: Rainwater that percolates through the soil collects above the bedrock. This natural level of groundwater is called the water table. D. LONG-ANSWER QUESTIONS: Answer in about 50 words. 1. Explain how water is responsible for the formation of soil. Ans: Rainwater enters crevices of rocks. In winters, as this water freezes, it expands. This expansion breaks the rocks into smaller pieces. The broken pieces roll down by the force of flowing water and they collide against the ground and against each other to break down further. Finally, they get converted into very fine particles and mix with humus to form soil. 2. Trees help in soil formation as well as in its protection. Explain. Ans: Roots of trees growing through rocks exert great pressure on the rocks. This causes cracks in the rocks, leading to weathering. On the other hand, roots of plants growing on slopy hilly areas hold soil tightly and prevents soil erosion. Thus, we can say that trees help in soil formation as well as in its protection. 3. Name the different lavers of soil. What does each layer consist of? Ans: The different layers of soil are (i) Top soil (A-horizon): Humus and the smallest particles of rock form the upper layer of soil called topsoil or A-horizon. It contains the most nutrients for plants. (ii) Sub soil (B-horizon): It is mostly made up of rock bits and some nutrients, such as soluble minerals and iron oxides. (iii) Parent rock (C-horizon): It consists of small pieces of rocks with cracks and crevices. 4. Distinguish between clay, silt and sand. Ans: (i) Clay has the smallest size of particles less than 0.002 mm in diameter. In fact, we cannot see a single clay particle. Clay feels smooth because of its small particle size. (ii) Silt has particles larger than clay, (diameter between 0.002 mm and 0.2 mm). Therefore, it is not so smooth. It can be found, for example, in a river bed. (iii) Sand has the largest-sized particles, which can easily be seen (diameter greater than 0.2 mm). They are coarse to touch. 5. What is loam? Why is it considered to be the best topsoil for growing plants? Ans: The best topsoil for growing plants is loam. Loam is a mixture of sand, silt and clay and also has humus in it. It has the right water-holding capacity for plant growth. It also has adequate spaces between the soil particles to trap air required by the roots of the plants. 6. Why is soil regarded as our most important natural resource? Ans: .(i) Soil is our most important natural resource. It is useful to us in many ways: We depend on the soil for food, clothing and shelter: By supporting growth of plants, the soil provides us with food. Much of our clothing, such as cotton and wool, can be traced to the soil. Plants also provide us with the medicines, fuel, paper and wood which is used in making furniture and for constructing houses. (ii) We depend on the soil for minerals: Industries use the minerals dug out from the earth.to extract metals, such as iron, gold, silver and so on. These are used in thousands of industries that produce various useful things for us. (iii) We depend on the soil for water: Water that seeps into the soil is stored underground as subsoil water. We use this water for drinking and other purposes 7. Why is the earthworm referred to as 'farmer's friend'? Ans: The earthworm makes burrow in the soil. This makes the soil loose thus allowing air into it and water to drain from it. Earthworm also forms channels in the soil for the root to spread through. For this reason, the earthworm is referred to as the 'farmer's friend'. E. HOTS QUESTIONS: Think and answer. 1. What effect does construction of buildings and roads have on water percolation through soil? Hence what effect would this have on the water table? Answer: Construction of buildings and roads stops water percolation through the soil. This causes the water table to go down. 2, Soil is constantly formed by weathering of rocks. Why then are we so concerned about soil erosion? Answer: Formation of 1 cm of soil by natural method may take 100 years or more. However, erosion of soil happens in a matter of days. That is why soil erosion is of great concern. 3. Why does topsoil have much more humus than subsoil? Answer: The decay of the remains of plants and animals that forms humus mostly happens on top of the soil. Therefore the humus formed remains mostly on the top soil. 4. What kind of soil is most suitable for making toys and why? Answer: Clayey soil is smooth and sticky. It does not crumble apart easily. So it is most suitable for making toys as it can be moulded into any shape without breaking.

CLASS IX English SA-2 2017 SAMPLE PAPERS

English SA-2 2017 Sample Papers 9 / IX Click to download free :- English SA-2 Sample Papers 1 English SA-2 Sample Papers 2 English SA-2 Sample Papers 3 English SA-2 Sample Papers 4 English SA-2 Sample Papers 5

Wind Storm and Cyclone science answer class7

Wind Storm and Cyclone Living science answer class7 A. Multiple Choice Questions:Wind Storm and Cyclone Living science answer class7 1. Air exerts pressure in a. all directions b. downward direction only. c. upward direction only d. sideways only. 2. Low atmospheric pressure exists on the earth in which of the following latitudes? a. at the equator only b. at 30° N and S c. at the Poles d. at the equator and at 60° N and S 3. Which of the following are not associated with cyclones? a. strong winds b. heavy rains c. tidal waves d. volcanic eruptions 4. Development and movement of cyclones are studied by the a. Indian Postal Department. b. Indian Forensic Department. c. Indian Meteorological Department. d. Central Investigation Department. 5. Which of the following states of India is most likely to be hit by a cyclone? a. Punjab b. Madhya Pradesh c. Andhra Pradesh d. Jammu and Kashmir 6. A piece of plywood is kept on a table. You have to lift it from the table by blowing air over it at very high speed from a powerful fan. In which direction will you blow air? a. in the upward direction b. in the downward direction c. sideways d. in the upward direction below the table 7. The fact that, increased wind speed results in reduced air pressure is known as a. Galileo principle. b. Bernoulli principle. c. Newton principle. d. Einstein principle. 8. Which of these best describes a tornado? a. strong thunderstorm b. the eye of a cyclone c. rotating funnel of high speed wind 10-15 km across d. rotating funnel of high speed wind 10-200 m across Ans. 1. a 2. d 3. d 4. c 5. c 6. c 7. b 8. d B. VERY SHORT-ANSWER QUESTIONS: Give one-word answers. 1. Does air temperature increase or decrease as you go up in the atmosphere? 2. Does air pressure increase or decrease as you go up in the atmosphere? 3. A rubber sucker pressed on flat surface sticks to the surface because air pressure inside it is __________ (more/less) than the air pressure outside. 4. The faster the air moves, the _______________ (greater/smaller) is the pressure. 5. When air expands, it rises tip. True or false? 6. Where is the air pressure higher — at the equator or at the Poles? 7. Monsoon winds flow because of uneven heating of land and _____________. 8. Lightning is an electric spark between clouds. True or false? 9. Calm conditions do not prevail anywhere in the cyclone. True or false? 10. Cyclonic winds tend to circulate around the _______________ of the cyclone. Ans: 1. decrease 2. decrease 3. less 4. smaller 5. true 6. Poles 7. sea/water 8. true 9. false 10. eye C. SHORT-ANSWER QUESTIONS: Answer in a sentence or two. 1. Name any four natural hazards. Ans: Four natural hazards are earthquakes, floods, droughts and cyclones 2. In which direction does air exert maximum pressure? Ans: Air exerts pressure in all directions. 3. The speed of wind in a region suddenly increases. How does this affect the pressure in the region? Ans: . This will reduce the pressure in the region. 4. Why does heated air rise up? Ans: When air is heated, it expands. This causes it to become lighter than the surrounding cooler air thus it rises in 5. What causes monsoon winds? Ans: Monsoon winds are caused by uneven heating of land and sea. 6. What causes lightning during a thunderstorm? Ans: Static electricity is produced due to the collisions between water droplets and ice crystals in atmosphere. This causes huge sparks between clouds or between a cloud and the ground in the form of lightning during a thunderstorm 7. Why does a cyclone become weak once it hits land? Ans: The cyclone becomes weak once it hits land due to friction with land and shortage of moisture. 8. What causes a tornado to be formed? Ans: A tornado is formed when a funnel-like column of cold air sinks down from a storm cloud. Warm air from the surface rises up, whirls around it and causes very high speed winds. D. LONG-ANSWER QUESTIONS: Answer in about 50 words. 1. Explain why a rubber sucker pressed on a smooth surface gets stuck to the surface. Ans: Rubber sucker when pressed against a flat smooth surface, forces air, out between the smooth surface and the sucker. This reduces air pressure in the space between the sucker and the smooth surface. There is greater air pressure outside. Hence, this air pressure outside firmly presses the rubber sucker to the smooth surface. 2. Describe an experiment to show that increased wind speed leads to reduced air pressure. Ans: We have to tape cotton threads to two tennis balls and hang them 2-3 cm apart from each other at the same height. Now, we should blow air between them using a drinking straw. Harder we blow, the closer the balls come to each other. This happens because, when we blow between the two balls, the air pressure between them reduces 3. a. In which direction does wind blow between the equator and latitude 30° N? Why? Ans: The wind blows towards the equator. This happens because the regions close to the equator get the maximum heat from the sun. The air near the earth's surface becomes warm and rises, producing a low pressure region. Cooler air from either side of the equator up to a latitude of about 30° rushes in to take its place. 3. b. Why does the wind swerve to one side instead of blowing straight? Ans: If the earth had stood still, these winds would have blown straight. But as the earth rotates, the winds in the Northern Hemisphere swerve to the right, and the winds in the Southern Hemisphere swerve to the left. 4. What are the hazards associated with a cyclone? Ans: The hazards associated with a cyclone are strong winds, heavy rains, tidal waves and floods. The high speed winds of tropical cyclones are accompanied by heavy rains and huge sea waves. Flooding is caused by the huge sea waves as they hit the coast, and the accompanying rain further worsens the situation. Trees get uprooted, houses collapse, and telecommunication lines get disrupted leading to heavy loss of life and property. 5. Describe the 'eye of a cyclone'. Ans: At the centre of the cyclonic storm is a calm, cloudless area. This is called the eye. Its diameter may vary from 10 km to 30 km. There is no rain here, and the winds are fairly light. 6. How is the forecasting of cyclones done in India? Ans: The Indian Meteorological Department studies the development and movement of cyclones. This is done with the help of INSAT satellite and chain of Cyclone Detection Radars (CDRs) installed along the coastal belt of India. These radars can locate and track an approaching cyclone within a range of 400 km. 7. What precautions are needed in the cyclone-prone areas? Ans: Precautions needed for the cyclone-prone regions are: (i) Listen weather bulletins regularly in radio and TV. (ii) Store enough food articles in waterproof bags. Also store safe drinking water. (iii) As soon as a warning is sounded, secure home well or move to the safer places. (iv) Do not venture into the sea. 8. Draw a labelled diagram of the structure of a cyclone. Mark the direction of winds surrounding the eye. Ans: HOTS QUESTIONS: Think and answer. 1. You may have seen holes made in huge hoardings. Why are these necessary? Ans: Holes are necessary in hoardings to reduce the air pressure on them when the wind blows, as much of the air passes through the holes. 2. News item in a newspaper: 'A cyclone, that started in the desert of Rajasthan, hits Delhi today' Is the news item correct? Give reasons. Ans: No. We can not expect a cyclone to be formed in the desert of Rajasthan as it usually forms over the sea. 3. In winter, in regions near the equator, why does wind blow from land to the sea? Ans: In winter the sea near the equator is warmer than the land. As the air above the sea rises, the air above the cooler land blows to take its place. 4. Suppose the earth rotated from east to west, instead of from vest to east. How would this affect the pattern of wind circulation on the earth? Ans: If the earth rotated from east to west, instead of west to east, the winds in the northern hemisphere would swerve to the left instead of right, and the winds in the southern hemisphere would swerve to the right instead of left. 5. The figure shows wind blowing at high speed in a narrow region. Will the pressure be high or low at A, B and C? Ans: The pressure would be low at B and C. However at A, directly in the path of the wind, the pressure would be high.

CLASS IX SA II-SAMPLE QUESTION PAPAERS FOR PRACTICE

9th Maths Question paper(visitor) 2015-16-1 Download File 9th Maths Question paper(visitor) 2015-16-2 Download File 9th Maths Question paper(visitor) 2015-16-3 Download File 9th Maths Question paper(visitor) 2015-16-4 Download File IX Original English Question paper SA2 March 2016 9th English_2016_SA2 Question papers - 1 Download File 9th English_2016_SA2 Question papers(CPS) -2 Download File 9th English_2016_SA2 Question papers(DAV) -3 Download File 9th English_2016_SA2 Question papers(SDV) -4 Download File 9th English 2016 SA2 Question paper(vinit) -5 Download File IX Science Original Paper with OTBA March 2016 session 2015-16 9th Science question paper by visitor 2015-16-1 Download File 9th Science question paper by visitor 2015-16-2 Download File 9th Science question paper by visitor 2015-16-3 Download File 9th Science question paper by visitor 2015-16-4 Download File 9th Science question paper by SDV 2015-16-8 Download File 9th Science question paper by CPS 2015-16-9 Download File 9th Hindi Real Question paper SA2 March 2016 9th Hindi-B SA2 Question paper 2015-16 set-1 Download File Class 9 Sanskrit SA2 Question paper March 2016 9th sankrit sa2 Question paper DAV 2015-16 Download File

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NOVEL CLASS X-SA II-The Story of my Life: Summary (Chapter 15-22) Simplified

The Story of my Life: Summary (Chapter 15-22) 

Chapter 15 Helen spent the next summer and winter with her family in Alabama. Staying at home made her forget about the controversy over ‘The Frost King’. Helen was scared that people would discover that the ideas were not her own. To help her, Helen’s teacher Anne Sullivan encouraged her to write the story of her own life in the form of an assignment. Helen was 12 years old at that time and used to write for a magazine called Youth's Companion. Her visit to President Cleveland’s inauguration, to Niagara Falls, and to the World’s fair were the big events of 1893. Although she couldn’t see the Falls, Helen said that their power had a big impact on her. Helen claimed that beauty and music were like goodness and love to her.Chapter 16 By the time Helen was 13, she could fingerspell and read in raised print and Braille. He could not only speak in English, but also a little bit of French. Helen began her formal schooling and preparation for college in for college by taking Latin and Math lessons.  She initially liked Math more, but later grew to love Latin too.Anne Sullivan taught Helen based on her interests until now. She used to teach her what she wanted to know and provided her with experiences. However, when preparing for college, Helen worked systematically and things that did not gratify her immediately. She had to achieve her goal of receiving formal education.  Chapter 17 In October 1894, Helen went to the Wright-Humason School for the Deaf in New York City for two years. Miss Sullivan accompanied her and attended the school as her interpreter. Helen studied arithmetic, physical geography, French and German at the school. The school was chosen because it was the best for continuing the development of Helen’s speech and lip reading skills. Helen and her teachers were disappointed as her lip-reading and speech skills were not what they had hoped and expected to be despite the practice. Helen did not like Math. In spite of the setbacks, her admiration for geography and languages helped her form fond memories of her stay in New York.  The only thing she liked about New York was Central Park. The daily walks in Central park and closeness to nature were the two things that helped her get closer to her former life in her country.Chapter 18 In 1896, Helen went to Cambridge school for Young Ladies to be prepared to get into Radcliffe. It was her first experience of attending classes with girls who could hear and see. At the Cambridge School too, Miss Sullivan was to attend the classes with Helen as her interpreter. The teachers had never taught someone like Helen. The subjects that Helen learnt in the first year were English history, English literature, German, Latin, arithmetic, Latin composition and occasional themes. Miss Sullivan tried her best to spell into Helen’s hands everything that was in the books. Although Helen’s sponsors in London and Philadelphia worked to have the textbooks embossed in raised print for Helen to read, the books were not ready in time to suit Helen’s purpose. The Principal and the German teacher learnt to fingerspell so that Miss Sullivan could take a break. Although they were not as fluent as Miss Sullivan, Principal Gilman took over teaching Helen English Literature for the remaining part of the year.  Chapter 19 SummaryHelen looked forward to her second year at Gilman’s school. However, she was confronted with unexpected difficulties that year which caused her a great deal of frustration.  She had to study mathematics without the needed tools. The classes were larger and it was not possible for the Cambridge teachers to give her special instructions. Anne Sullivan had to read all the books to her. Helen had to wait in order to buy a Braille writer so that she could do her algebra, geometry and physics.When the embossed books and the other apparatus arrived, Helen’s difficulties began to disappear and she began to study with confidence. However, Mr. Gilman thought that Helen was overworked and was breaking down. He insisted that I was overworked, and that I should remain at his school three years longer. He made changes in her studies. A difference of opinion between Mr. Gilman and Miss Sullivan resulted in Helen’s mother withdrawing Helen and Mildred from the Cambridge school. Helen went on to continue her studies under a tutor. Helen found it easier to study with a tutor than receive instructions in class.When Helen took her exam in June 1899, she faced many difficulties, as the administrative board of Radcliffe did not realize how difficult they were making her examinations. They did not understand the peculiar difficulties Helen had to go through. However, Helen, with her grit and determination, overcame them all.                  Chapter 20 Helen Keller took the entrance exams for Radcliffe College in 1899 just after her 19th birthday. She became the first blind-deaf college student in the fall of 1900.  She had thought of college romantically, that it would be a time to reflect and think about her subjects. However, her college life was different from her fellow students. She had to use her hands to listen rather than take down notes. The speed at which the lectures took place made it difficult for Keller to understand and remember everything that was taught.Ms. Keller and Ms. Sullivan worked hard at Radcliffe College. Ms. Sullivan attended all of Ms. Keller's classes and helped with reading. Radcliffe was not prepared for deaf or blind students at that time. Many of the other students had never met a deaf and blind person. Although she enjoyed college, Ms. Keller thought that schedules of the students were too hectic and gave no time to sit and think. She also wrote, "we should take our education as we would take a walk in the country, leisurely, our minds hospitably open to impressions of every sort."Chapter 21 In this chapter, Helen Keller goes back to tell readers about her initial experiences with reading. Helen first read when I was seven years old. That was her first connected story in May 1887. There were only a few books in raised print, which Helen read repeatedly until a time when the words were so worn and pressed that she could scarcely make them out.During her visit to Boston, she was allowed to spend a part of each day at the Institution library, and here she used to wander from bookcase to bookcase and take down whatever her “fingers lighted upon”. When she discovered the book ‘Little Lord Fauntleroy,’ Miss Sullivan read it to her and the book became Helen’s “sweet and gentle companion” throughout her childhood.From there she read many books and she loved "Little Women" because it gave her a sense of kinship with girls and boys who could see and hear. She also loved ‘The Jungle Book’ and ‘Wild ‘Animals I Have Known’ as she felt a genuine interest in the animals themselves, they being “real animals and not caricatures of men”.  She was fascinated by Greek literature and it was Iliad that made Greece her “paradise”. According to her, great poetry did not need an interpreter but a responsive heart. Macbeth and King Lear impressed her most among Shakespeare’s works. She read the Bible for years “with an ever-broadening sense of joy and inspiration”. She said she loved it as she loved no other book.Helen also expresses her love for history apart from her love for literature. The first book that gave her a real sense of the value of history was Swinton's "World's History," which she received on her thirteenth birthday. Among the French writers, she liked Molière and Racine best. Literature was Helen’s Utopia, where she faced no barrier of the senses. The things that she had learned and the things that were taught to her seemed of ridiculously little importance compared with their "large loves and heavenly charities."Chapter 22 Books and reading were not the only things that Helen enjoyed. When Helen was not reading, she enjoyed outdoor activities. She liked swimming, canoeing, and sailing. She also loved trees and used to feel close to them so much so that she believed she could hear their sap flow and see the sun shining on the leaves. Helen felt that each one of us had the ability to understand the impressions and the emotions experienced by mankind from the beginning. Blindness or deafness could not rob us of our memory in the subconscious about the green earth. This, she termed as the sixth sense which can see, feel and hear.   

POPULATION CLASS IX QUESTION ANSE

Class IX: Chapter 6 (Population) Question & Answer

Q1. Why is the rate of population growth in India declining since 1981?
Ans: The rate of population growth in India is declining since 1981 because:
(a) The family planning programme initiated by the government made a great impact on the mindset of the people.
(b) Educational programmes have improved the literacy rate helping in increasing the awareness about the benefits of smaller family size.
(c) Parents became aware and wanted to give better quality of life to their children, i.e. good education, food, clothing, health, etc

Q2. Discuss the major components of population growth.
Ans: Major components of population growth are:
(a) Birth rate
(b) Death rate
(c) Migration
A higher birth rate, with a lower death rate leads to population growth. International migration can lead to population growth.

Q3. Define age structure, death rate and birth rate.
Ans: Age Structure: Number of people in different age groups in country is called age structure of the population. Population of a nation is generally grouped into three broad categories:
(a) Children (Below 15 years of age): Economically unproductive and needs to be provided with the necessities of life (food, cloth, education, etc.)
(b) Working age (15 – 59 years): Economically and biologically productive
(c) Aged (Above 59 years of age): They can be economically productive even after retirement.

Death Rate: The number of deaths per 1000 persons is called death rate.
Birth Rate: The number of live births per 1000 persons is called birth rate.

Q4. How is migration a determinant factor of population change?
Ans: Movement of people from one place to another; in search of livelihood is called migration. Migration can be classified into two:
(a) Migration within the country is called internal migration.
(b) Migration between two countries is called international migration.
Internal migration has no change on population size but it changes the population composition of a particular area. International migration can lead to a growth or degrowth in population; depending on the degree of immigration and emigration.
In India, Poverty and lack of employment opportunities in rural areas work as 'push' factors which result in migration to urban areas. Better employment opportunities in urban areas work as 'pull' factors for migration. Due to increased migration towards urban areas, the share of urban population has increased from 17.29% in 1951 to 27.78% in 2001.

Q5. Distinguish between population growth and population change.
Ans:

Q6. What is the relation between occupational structure and development?
Ans: Occupational structure has got a great impact on the development of any country. In India more than 60% of the population is engaged in the agricultural activities and thus, are still dependent on the primary sector for employment, which is one of the reasons for lack of development in India. The developed nations suggest that when a greater portion of population engages in secondary and tertiary activities, it leads to great development.

Q7. What are the advantages of having a healthy population?
Ans: It is rightly said, a healthy mind resides in a healthy body. Human resource is the most important resource for the development of a country. A healthy population helps in building a productive workforce for the country. If the health of the population is properly looked after, people can put in more number of working hours and thus, the production level of the country can be increased. Even the non-productive age group needs to be healthy to reduce the burden of healthcare. Healthy children would grow into healthy adults and would be able to contribute better in the economy. Healthy elders would mean less drain on the resources.

Q8. What are the significant features of the National Population Policy 2000?
Ans: The new national population policy of 2000 was announced by the Government of India, its main features are:
(a) Redress the unmet needs for basic reproductive and child health services, supplies and infrastructure.
(b) Free and compulsory school education up to age 14, for both boys and girls.
(c) Reduce infant mortality rate to below 30 per 1000 live births.
(d) Reduce maternal mortality ratio to below 100 per 100,000 live births.
(e) Achieve universal immunization of children against all vaccine preventable diseases.
(f) Promote delayed marriage for girls, not earlier than age 18 and preferably after 20 years of age.
(g) Achieve 80 per cent institutional deliveries and 100 percent deliveries by trained persons.
(h) Making family welfare a people centered programme.
(i) Preventing and controlling transmissible diseases.

POLITICAL PARTIES CLASS X NOTES SA II

Political Parties

A political party 

A political party is a group of people who come together to contest elections and hold power in the government. They agree on some policies and programs for the society with a view to promote the collective good. 

Partisan (Active member)

A person, who is strongly committed to a political party 

Partisanship ( Follower) 

Partisanship is marked by a tendency to take a side and inability to take a balanced view on an issue.

Components of a political Party

 A political party has three components:

1.      The leaders

2.      The active members and

3.      The followers

What does a political party do?  OR What are the functions of political parties? ORWhy do we need political parties?

1.      Political Parties contest elections. In most democracies, elections are fought mainly among the candidates put up by political parties. In India, top party leaders choose candidates for contesting elections.

2.      Parties put forward different policies and programs and the voters choose from them. In a democracy, a large number of similar opinions have to be grouped together to provide a direction in which policies can be formulated by the governments.

3.       Parties play a decisive role in making laws for a country. Formally, laws are debated and passed in the legislature. But since most of the members belong to a party, they go by the direction of the party leadership.

4.      Parties form and run governments. Parties recruit leaders, train them and then make them ministers to run the government in the way they want.

5.      Those parties that lose in the elections play the role of opposition to the ruling parties, by voicing different views and criticising government for its failures or wrong policies. Opposition parties also mobilise opposition to the government.

6.      Parties shape public opinion. They raise and highlight issues. Parties sometimes also launch movements for the resolution of problems faced by people. 

7.      Parties provide people access to government machinery and welfare schemesimplemented by governments. For an ordinary citizen it is easy to approach a local party leader than a government officer.

Why modern democracies cannot exist without political parties?

We can understand the necessity of political parties by imagining a situation without parties.

1.      Every candidate in the elections will be independent. So no one will be able to make any promises to the people about any (National level Policies) major policy changes. 

2.      The government may be formed, but its utility will remain ever uncertain.

3.      Elected representatives will be accountable to their constituency for what they do in the locality. But no one will be responsible for how the country will be run.

4.      The rise of political parties is directly linked to the emergence of representative democracies. As societies became large and complex, they also needed some agency to gather different views on various issues and to present these to the government.

5.       They needed Political party to bring various representatives together so that a responsible government could be formed. They needed a mechanism to support or restrain the government, make policies, justify or oppose them.

Political Parties and Party System 

1.      Single Party System

In some countries, only one party is allowed to control and run the government. These are called one-party systems. In China, only the Communist Party is allowed to rule.

2.      Two Party System

In some countries, power usually changes between two main parties. Several other parties may exist but only the two main parties have a serious chance of winning majority of seats to form government. Such a party system is called two-party system. 

3.      Multi-Party System

If several parties compete for power, and more than two parties have a reasonable chance of coming to power either on their own strength or in alliance with others, we call it a multi-party system. 

4.      In India there were three such major alliances in 2004 parliamentary elections

National Democratic Alliance

United Progressive Alliance 

Left Front.

How many parties should we have in a democracy? OR How many major or effective parties are good for a democracy?

1.       Party system is not something any country can choose. It evolves over a long time, depending on the nature of society, its social and regional divisions, its history of politics and its system of elections.

2.      Each country develops a party system that is conditioned by its special circumstances. 

3.      For example, if India has evolved a multi-party system, it is because the social and geographical diversity in such a large country is not easily absorbed by two or even three parties. 

4.      No system is ideal for all countries and all situations. (We cannot consider one party system as a good option because this is not a democratic option. Any democratic system must allow at least two parties to compete in elections and provide a fair chance for the competing parties to come to power.)

5.      (The multi-party system often appears very messy and leads to political instability)

Political parties in India

1.      Recognised Political Parties

Election Commission offers some special facilities to large and established parties. These parties are given a unique symbol, privileges and some other special facilities. That is why these parties are called, ‘recognised political parties’. 

2.      National Parties

A party that secures at least six per cent of the total votes in Lok Sabha elections or six per cent of the total votes in Assembly elections in four States and wins at least four seats in the Lok Sabha or two seats in four states is recognized as a national party.

3.      State Parties

A party that secures at least six per cent of the total votes in an election to the Legislative Assembly of a State and wins at least two seats is recognised as a State party. 

National Political Parties

1.      Indian National Congress(INC)

a.       Congress Party is one of the oldest parties of the world. It was founded in 1885 and has experienced many splits. 

b.      Under the leadership of Jawaharlal Nehru, the party sought to build a modern secular democratic republic in India. 

c.       Ruling party at the centre from 1947 to 1977 and then from 1980 to 1989. After 1989, its support declined, but it continues to be present throughout the country, cutting across social divisions. 

d.      A centrist party (neither rightist nor leftist) in its ideological orientation, the party espouses secularism and welfare of weaker sections and minorities. 

e.       Currently leads the ruling United Progressive Alliance coalition government at the Centre.

2.      Bharatiya Janata Party(BJP)

a.       It was founded in 1980 by reviving the erstwhile Bharatiya Jana Sangh.

b.      It wants to build a strong and modern India by drawing inspiration from India’s ancient culture and values. Cultural nationalism (or ‘Hindutva’) is an important element in its conception of Indian nationhood and politics. 

c.       It wants full territorial and political integration of Jammu and Kashmir with India, a uniform civil code for all people living in the country irrespective of religion and ban on religious conversions. 

d.      Earlier its popularity was limited to north and west and to urban areas but the party expanded its support in the south, east and north-east and to rural areas. 

e.       Came to power in 1998 as the leader of the National Democratic Alliance including several state and regional parties. 

3.      Bahujan Samaj Party( BSP)

a.       It was formed in 1984 under the leadership of Kanshi Ram.It seeks to represent and secure power for the bahujan samaj which includes the dalits, adivasis, OBCs and religious minorities. 

b.      It draws inspiration from the ideas and teachings of Sahu Maharaj, Mahatma Phule, Periyar Ramaswami Naicker and Babasaheb Ambedkar. 

c.       It stands for the cause of securing the interests and welfare of the dalits and oppressed people. 

d.      It has its main base in the state of Uttar Pradesh and substantial presence in neighbouring states like Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Delhi and Punjab. 

e.       It formed government in Uttar Pradesh several times by taking the support of different parties at different times. 

f.       In the Lok Sabha elections held in 2004, it polled about 5 per cent votes and secured 19 seats in the Lok Sabha.

4.      Communist Party of India - Marxist (CPI-M):

a.       It was founded in 1964. It believes in Marxism- Leninism. 

b.      It supports socialism, secularism and democracy and opposes imperialism and communalism. 

c.       It accepts democratic elections as a useful and helpful means for securing the objective of socioeconomic justice in India. 

d.      It enjoys strong support in West Bengal, Kerala and Tripura, especially among the poor, factory workers, farmers, agricultural labourers and the intelligentsia. 

e.       Has been in power in West Bengal without a break for 30 years. In 2004 elections, it won about 6 per cent of votes and 43 seats in the Lok Sabha. 

5.      Communist Party of India (CPI)

a.       It was formed in 1925. It believes in Marxism-Leninism, secularism and democracy.

b.      It opposes to the forces of secessionism and communalism. 

c.       It accepts parliamentary democracy as a means of promoting the interests of the working class, farmers and the poor. 

d.      It became weak after the split in the party in 1964. Significant presence in the states of Kerala, West Bengal, Punjab, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. 

e.       Its support base had gradually declined over the years. It secured about 1.4 per cent votes and 10 seats in the 2004 Lok Sabha elections.

6.      Nationalist Congress Party (NCP):

a.       It was formed in 1999 following a split in the Congress party. 

b.      It espouses democracy, Gandhian secularism, equity, social justice and federalism. 

c.       It wants that high offices in government be confined to natural born citizens of the country.

d.      A major party in Maharashtra and has a significant presence in Meghalaya, Manipur and Assam. 

e.       A coalition partner in the state of Maharashtra in alliance with the Congress. Since 2004, a member of the United Progressive Alliance.

State political parties

1.      Regional parties need not be regional in their ideology or outlook. Some of these parties are all India parties that happen to have succeeded only in some states. 

2.      Parties like the Samajwadi Party, Samata Party and Rashtriya Janata Dal have national level political organisation with units in several states. 

3.      Some of these parties like Biju Janata Dal, Sikkim Democratic Front and Mizo National Front are conscious about their State identity.

4.      Over the last three decades, the number and strength of these parties has expanded. This made the Parliament of India politically more and more diverse.

5.      No one national party is able to secure on its own a majority in Lok Sabha. As a result, the national parties are compelled to form alliances with State parties from1996

Challenges to political parties

1.      The first challenge is lack of internal democracy within parties. All over the world there is a tendency in political parties towards the concentration of power in one or few leaders at the top. Parties do not keep membership registers, do not hold organizational meetings, and do not conduct internal elections regularly.

2.      The second challenge is dynastic succession. In many parties, the top positions are always controlled by members of one family. This is unfair to other members of that party. This is also bad for democracy.

3.      The third challenge is about the growing role of money and muscle power in parties, especially during elections. They tend to nominate rich candidates and in some cases, parties support criminals who can win elections. 

4.      The fourth challenge is that very often parties do not seem to offer a meaningful choice to the voters. In recent years there has been a decline in the ideological differences among parties in most parts of the world.

5.      Since political parties are the most visible face of democracy, it is natural that people blame parties for whatever is wrong with the working of democracy. Popular dissatisfaction and criticism has focused on four problem areas in the working of political parties.

How can political parties be reformed? (Some of the recent efforts made to reform parties)

1.      The Constitution was amended to prevent elected MLAs and MPs from changing parties. Because some elected representatives indulge in DEFECTION in order to become ministers or for cash rewards. Now the law says that if any MLA or MP changes parties, he or she will lose the seat in the legislature. 

2.      The Supreme Court passed an order to reduce the influence of money and criminals. Now, it is mandatory for every candidate who contests elections to file an AFFIDAVIT giving details of his property and criminal cases pending against him.

3.      The Election Commission passed an order making it necessary for political parties to hold their organizational elections and file their income tax returns.

Some suggestions made to reform political parties and its leaders:

1.      A law should be made to regulate the internal affairs of political parties. It should be made compulsory for political parties to maintain a register of its members, follow its own constitution and hold open elections to the highest posts.

2.      It should be made mandatory for political parties to give a minimum number of tickets, about one-third, to women candidates. 

3.      There should be state funding of elections. The government should give parties money, petrol, paper, telephone etc. to support their election expenses. 

4.      There are two other ways in which political parties can be reformed. A) People can put pressure on political parties. This can be done through petitions, publicity and agitations. Ordinary citizens, pressure groups and movements and the media can play an important role in this. 

5.       B) Political parties can improve if many join political parties. The quality of democracy depends on the degree of public participation. It is difficult to reform politics if ordinary citizens do not take part in it and simply criticize it from the outside.